UGC NET PAPER 1 2006 SOLVED QUESTIONS

Q1.       Which of the following is not instructional material ?

(A) Over Head Projector         (B) Audio Casset

(C) Printed Material                 (D) Transparency

Answer: A

"Instructional material" means content that conveys the essential knowledge and skills of a subject in the public school curriculum through a medium or a combination of media for conveying information to a student. The term includes abook, supplementary materials, a combination of a book, workbook, and supplementary materials, computer software, magnetic media, DVD, CD-ROM, computer courseware, on-line services, or an electronic medium, or other means of conveying information to the student or otherwise contributing to the learning process through electronic means, including open-source instructional material.

Q2.       Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning

(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge

(C) Lecture Method is one way process

(D) During Lecture Method students are passive

Answer: A

Q3.       The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is :

(A) To prepare students to pass examination

(B) To develop the capacity to take decisions

(C) To give new information

(D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture

Answer: B

Q4.       Which of the following statement is correct ?

(A) Reliability ensures validity

(B) Validity ensures reliability

(C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other

(D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity

Answer: B

These two terms, reliability and validity, are often used interchangeably when they are not related to statistics. When critical readers of statistics use these terms, however, they refer to different properties of the statistical or experimental method.
Reliability is another term for consistency. If one person takes the same personality test several times and always receives the same results, the test is reliable.
A test is valid if it measures what it is supposed to measure. If the results of the personality test claimed that a very shy person was in fact outgoing, the test would be invalid.
Reliability and validity are independent of each other.
A measurement maybe valid but not reliable, or reliable but not valid. Suppose your bathroom scale was reset to read 10 pound lighter. The weight it reads will be reliable(the same every time you step on it) but will not be valid, since it is not reading your actual weight.

Q5.       Which of the following indicates evaluation ?

(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200

(B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English

(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination

(D) All the above

Answer: D

Q6.       Research can be conducted by a person who :

(A) has studied research methodology

(B) holds a postgraduate degree

(C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability

(D) is a hard worker

Answer: A

Q7.       Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis

(B) Researcher must possess analytical ability

(C) Variability is the source of problem

(D) All the above

Answer: D

Q8.       Which of the following is not the Method of Research ?

(A) Observation            (B) Historical

(C) Survey                                  (D) Philosophical

Answer: A

There are two types of research which can be done to develop a thesis or dissertation:
Practical Research: The practical approach consists of the empirical study of the topic under research and chiefly consists of hands on approach. This involves first hand research in the form of questionnaires, surveys, interviews, observations and discussion groups.
Theoretical Research: A non empirical approach to research, this usually involves perusal of mostly published works like researching through archives of public libraries, court rooms and published academic journals

Q9.       Research can be classified as :

(A) Basic, Applied and Action Research

(B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research

(C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research

(D) All the above

Answer: D

Classification of Research by Purpose - Basic v/s Applied research - Research and development - Evaluative research
Classification of Research by Method - Historical research - Descriptive research - Experimental research

Q10.    The first step of research is :

(A) Selecting a problem          (B) Searching a problem

(C) Finding a problem            (D) Identifying a problem

Answer: B

Steps in conducting research
Research is often conducted using the hourglass model structure of research. The hourglass model starts with a broad spectrum for research, focusing in on the required information through the method of the project, then expands the research in the form of discussion and results.
The major steps in conducting research are:
Identification of research problem
Literature review
Specifying the purpose of research
Determine specific research questions
Specification of a Conceptual framework - Usually a set of hypotheses
Choice of a methodology (for data collection)
Data collection
Verify Data
Analyzing and interpreting the data
Reporting and evaluating research
Communicating the research findings and, possibly, recommendations

 

Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15 :

After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham and disham-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience when the lights go dim and the projector rolls : as a nation, who are we ? As a people, where are we going ?

The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in 1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set in 1986, where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and the saviour. In Subhas Ghai’s Kisna, set in 1947, the other is the English woman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehta’s The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless cardboard characterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti, but an honourable friend.

This is Manoj Kumar’s Desh Ki dharti with a difference : there is culture, not contentious politics; balle balle, not bombs : no dooriyan (distance), only nazdeekiyan

(closeness).

All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less of a boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name : Veer Pratap Singh in Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, but often a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.

Q11.       Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce ?

(A) Bling + bling           (B) Zeitgeist

(C) Montaz                                  (D) Dooriyan

Answer: B

Q12.       Who made Lamhe in 1991 ?

(A) Subhash Ghai       (B) Yash Chopra

(C) Aditya Chopra       (D) Sakti Samanta

Answer: B

Q13.       Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar ?

(A) Jewel in the Crown           (B) Kisna

(C) Zaara                                                                             (D) Desh Ki dharti

Answer: D

Q14.       Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra ?

(A) Deewar                                                                       (B) Kabhi Kabhi

(C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge (D) Veer Zaara

Answer: D

Q15.       Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara ?

(A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes

(B) Traditional Bengali Clothes

(C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes

(D) Traditional Madrasi Clothes

Answer: C

Q16.       Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication ?

(A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.

(B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.

(C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.

(D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.

Answer: C

Verbal communication Effective verbal or spoken communication is dependent on a number of factors and cannot be fully isolated from other important interpersonal skills such as non-verbal communication, listening skills and clarification. Human language can be defined as a system of symbols and the grammars (rules) by which the symbols are manipulated. The word "language" also refers to common properties of languages. Language learning normally occurs most intensively during human childhood. The communication is two way process instead of one way.

Q17.       Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India ?

(A) Zee News   (B) NDTV 24×7

(C) CNBC         (D) India News

Answer: C

CNBC Awaaz is a Hindi business news TV channel in India. The channel is a joint venture between CNBC and Television Eighteen India Limited (TV18) based in New Delhi. In 2003, they launched two 24-hour news channels NDTV 24x7 in English and NDTV India in Hindi. Later they also launched NDTV Profit, a 24-hour business news channel in 2005, which became close to bankruptcy.

Q18.       Consider the following statements in communication :

(i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India.

(ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.

(iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development Corporation.

(iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) (i) and (iii)              (B) (ii) and (iii) 

(C) (iv) only                                 (D) (iii) only

Answer: No option is correct

Communication is the purposeful activity of information exchange between two or more participants in order to convey or receive the intended meanings through a shared system of signs and semiotic rules. The basic steps of communication are the forming of communicative intent, message composition, message encoding, transmission of signal, reception of signal, message decoding and finally interpretation of the message by the recipient.

 

Explanation:

Children's Film Society of India (CFSI) is a nodal organization of Government of India that produces children's films and various TV programs in various Indian languages. Established in 1955, CFSI functions comes under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India and is headquartered in Mumbai. Veteran actor Mukesh Khanna is the present chairperson (check who is now) of the CFSI.

Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) (often referred to as the Censor Board) headquarters at Mumbai is a Statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting,  regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification. Film producer Pahlaj Nihalani is the present chairperson (check who is now) of the CBFC.

National Film Development Corporation of India (NFDC) based in Mumbai is the central agency established to encourage the good cinema movement in the country. The primary goal of the NFDC is to plan, promote and organize an integrated and efficient development of the Indian film industry and foster excellence in cinema. The NFDC (and its predecessor the Film Finance Corporation) has so far funded / produced over 300 films.

Q19.       Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?

(A) N. Ram : The Hindu                                                  (B) Barkha Dutt : Zee News

(C) Pranay Roy : NDTV 24×7            (D) Prabhu Chawla : Aaj taak

Answer: B

Barkha Dutt is an Indian television journalist and columnist. She works as a consulting editor with NDTV. Dutt gained prominence for her reportage of the Kargil War.

Q20.    “Because you deserve to know” is the punchline used by :

(A) The Times of India            (B) The Hindu

(C) Indian Express                                (D) Hindustan Times

Answer: D

The Times of India - Let the truth prevail. BUSINESS INDIA-The Magazine of the Corporate World.
BUSINESS TODAY-For Managing Tomorrow.
BUSINESS STANDARD-When you're Sure.
CHIP-Intelligent Computing.
DIGIT- Your Technology Navigator.
BUSINESS WORLD - Play the Game.
FILM FARE - Romancing the Stars
The Indian EXPRESS- Journalism of Courage.
THE ECONOMIC TIMES-The Power of Knowledge.
THE ECONOMIST-great minds think a like.
HINDUSTAN TIMES-The Name India trusts for News.
THE DAILY TELEGRAPH- Read a Bestseller everyday
MALAYALA MANORMA- Nobody delivers kerala better
MATHRUBHUMI - The national daily in Malayalam
SPORTSTAR - The Sportier Tabloid

Q21.       In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is :

(A) 26                 (B) 24 

(C) 36                 (D) 32

Answer: C

In the sequence of numbers
8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54
8*3= 24, 12*3= 36, 18*3= 54, i.e multiple of 3.

Q22.       If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following numbers stand for 17, 19, 20, 9 and 8 :

(A) PLANE        (B) MOPED 

(C) MOTOR       (D) TONGA

Answer: B

If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then
E=9, F=10, G=11, H=12, I=13, J=14, K=15, L=16, M=17, N=18, O=19, P=20.

Therefore 17, 19 , 20, 9, 8

              = M   O    P   E  D.

Q23.       The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship what is the right choice for the second set ?

AST : BRU : : NQV : ?

(A) ORW            (B) MPU 

(C) MRW           (D) OPW

Answer: D

AST : BRU : : NQV : ?
The Relationship show that First letter DECODE with next alphabet, and second letter DECODE with the previous alphabets and so on.
Therefore N --> O, Q --> P, and V --> W i.e OPW.

Q24.       In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is written as:

(A) 30     (B) 37 

(C) 38     (D) 39

Answer: B

According to the position number of alphabets
A =1, P=16, T=20
Hence, PAT=16+1+20 = 37.

Q25.       The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2:1/3:1/4. If its perimeter is 52 cm, the length of the smallest side is :

(A) 9 cm             (B) 10 cm 

(C) 11 cm          (D) 12 cm

Answer: D

Explanation:

Sides of a triangle are in the ratio of a:b:c = 1/2:1/3:1/4

= 12/2 : 12/3 : 12/4 = 6:4:3

Let the lengths of three sides of the triangle be 6x, 4x, 3x

Perimeter of the triangle = a+b+c ⇒ 52 cm = 6x + 4x + 3x

x = 52/13 = 4 cm

length of the smallest side = 3x = 3 x 4 = 12 cm

Q26.       Which one of the following statements is completely non-sensical ?

(A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently.

(B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.

(C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.

(D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.

Answer: B

Q27.       Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory ?

(i) All flowers are not fragrant.

(ii) Most flowers are not fragrant.

(iii) None of the flowers is fragrant.

(iv) Most flowers are fragrant.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(A) (i) and (ii)                (B) (i) and (iii)

(C) (ii) and (iii)              (D) (iii) and (iv)

Answer: D

Q28.       Which of the following statements say the same thing ?

(i) “I am a teacher” (said by Arvind)

(ii) “I am a teacher” (said by Binod)

(iii) “My son is a teacher” (said by Binod’s father)

(iv) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s sister)

(v) “My brother is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only sister)

(vi) “My sole enemy is a teacher” (said by Binod’s only enemy)

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(A) (i) and (ii)                (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(C) (ii) and (vi)              (D) (v) and (vi)

Answer: B

Q29.       Which of the following are correct ways of arguing ?

(i) There can be no second husband without a second wife.

(ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj.

(iii) A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.

(iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(A) (iii) and (iv)                                                                   (B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)       (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: A

Q30.    Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE ?

(i) The sun will not rise in the East some day.

(ii) A wooden table is not a table.

(iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water.

(iv) Cars run on water as fuel.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)        (B) Only (iii)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)         (D) (ii) alone

Answer: D

 

Study the following graph and answer question numbers 31 to 33 :  

  

Q31.       In the year 2000, which of the following Companies earned maximum percent profit ?

(A) a       (B) b 

(C) d       (D) f

Answer: D

Graph shows in year 2000 “f” company earned maximum percent profit i.e 60 %.

Q32.       In the year 2001, which of the following Companies earned minimum percent profit ?

(A) a       (B) c 

(C) d       (D) e

Answer: A

Graph shows in year 2001 “a” company earned mimimum percent profit i.e 40 %.

Q33.       In the years 2000 and 2001, which of the following Companies earned maximum average percent profit ?

(A) f        (B) e 

(C) d       (D) b

Answer: A

Graph shows in year 2000 and 2001 “f” company earned maximum average percent profit i.e 60 + 65 =125/2 = 62.5 %.

Q34.       Human Development Report for ‘each’ of the year at global level has been published by:

(A) UNDP          (B) WTO

(C) IMF              (D) World Bank

Answer: A

Explanation:

The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) headquartered in New York is the United Nations' global development network. UNDP advocates for change and connects countries to knowledge, experience and resources to help people build a better life. It provides expert advice, training, and grant support to developing countries.

The UNDP Human Development Report Office publishes an annual Human Development Report to measure and analyse developmental progress.

Q35.       The number of students in four classes A, B, C, D and their respective mean marks obtained by each of the class are given below :

	Class A	Class B	Class C	Class D
Number of students	10	40	30	20
Arithmetic mean	20	30	50	15

The combined mean of the marks of four classes together will be :

(A) 32                 (B) 50 

(C) 20                 (D) 15

Answer: A

Explanation:

Formula to find Combined mean, X’ = (N1X1’ + N2X2’)/N1+N2

Here, Combined mean = (10x20 + 40x30 + 30x50 + 20x15)/(10+40+30+20)

                                        = 3200/100 = 32

Q36.       LAN stands for :

(A) Local And National           (B) Local Area Network

(C) Large Area Network          (D) Live Area Network

Answer: B

Q37.       Which of the following statement is correct ?

(A) Modem is a software

(B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage

(C) Modem is the operating system

(D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa

Answer: D

Q38.       Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer ?

(A) Computer is a machine that can process information.

(B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurately.

(C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process only quantitative data.

(D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and accurately only qualitative information

Answer: B

Q39.       Information and Communication Technology includes :

(A) On line learning                (B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT

(C) Web Based Learning       (D) All the above

Answer: D

Q40.    Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e-mail ?

(A) www_mail.com                 (B) www@mail.com

(C) WWW@mail.com              (D) www.mail.com

Answer: B

Q41.       The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of :

(A) change in weather            (B) sinking of islands

(C) loss of vegetation              (D) extinction of animals

Answer: A

Eruptions are unstoppable, and a very large one is potentially long lasting (several days of intense explosive output from the volcano). Further, the effects are both immediate (widespread ash fall, pyroclastic flows) and also of longer-duration (due atmospheric aerosols, re-sedimentation of fresh deposits by lahar activity), persisting and presenting problems for years afterwards. In these ways, the hazards posed by explosive eruptions differ from those due to all other natural disasters. It will necessary to develop strategies to minimize and cope with the effects of future major eruptions. The economic cost of recovery from any future large-scale eruptions will be a major burden on society. Finally, as airborne ash and atmospheric sulphate aerosols will bring about the most widespread, long-lasting and generally hazardous effects of the next large explosive eruption, it will be essential to carry out further studies with global circulation atmospheric models to evaluate their potential effects on climate and weather, and other potential feedbacks with global environmental cycles. Some currently unanticipated consequences will surely be found.

Q42.       With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired level, there will be :

(A) decrease in temperature              (B) increase in salinity

(C) growth of phytoplankton              (D) rise in sea level

Answer: C

Phytoplankton are photosynthesizing microscopic organisms that inhabit the upper sunlit layer of almost all oceans and bodies of fresh water. They are agents for "primary production," the creation of organic compounds from carbon dioxide dissolved in the water, a process that sustains the aquatic food web. Phytoplankton obtain energy through the process of photosynthesis and must therefore live in the well-lit surface layer (termed the euphotic zone) of an ocean, sea, lake, or other body of water. Phytoplankton account for half of all photosynthetic activity on Earth. Their cumulative energy fixation in carbon compounds (primary production) is the basis for the vast majority of oceanic and also many freshwater food webs (chemosynthesis is a notable exception). The effects of anthropogenic warming on the global population of phytoplankton is an area of active research.

Explanation:

Phytoplankton are microscopic organisms that live in watery environments, both salty and fresh. Some phytoplankton are bacteria, some are protists, and most are single-celled plants. When conditions are right, phytoplankton populations can grow explosively, a phenomenon known as a bloom. Phytoplankton can also be the harbingers of death or disease. Certain species of phytoplankton produce powerful biotoxins. These toxic blooms can kill marine life and people who eat contaminated seafood.

Q43.       Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Column I                                   Column II

Water Quality                          pH Value

(a) Neutral                                 (i) 5

(b) Moderately acidic                (ii) 7

(c) Alkaline                               (iii) 4

(d) Injurious                              (iv) 8

Code :

      (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)

(A) (ii)   (iii)   (i)    (iv)

(B) (i)    (iii)   (ii)   (iv)

(C) (ii)   (i)    (iv)  (iii)

(D) (iv)  (ii)   (iii)   (i)

Answer: C

PH indicates the sample's acidity but is actually a measurement of the potential activity of hydrogen ions (H+) in the sample. PH measurements run on a scale from 0 to 14, with 7.0 considered neutral. Solutions with a PH below 7.0 are considered acids. Solutions with a pH above 7.0, up to 14.0 are considered bases. The normal range for pH in surface water systems is 6.5 to 8.5, and the pH range for groundwater systems is between 6 to 8.5. Alkalinity is a measure of the capacity of the water to resist a change in pH that would tend to make the water more acidic.

Explanation:

pH is a measure of how acidic/basic water is. The range goes from 0 - 14, with 7 being neutral. pHs less than 7 are acidic, whereas pHs greater than 7 are alkaline (basic).

Q44.       The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by :

(A) Coal                                                                   (B) Firewood

(C) Refuse burning     (D) Vegetable waste product

Answer: B

As many as 115,000 people die in India each year from coal-fired power plant pollution, costing the country about $4.6 billion, according to a groundbreaking new study released today. Coal is the primary fuel for electricity generation in India and its usage is continuously increasing to meet the energy demands of the country.

Q45.       The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during nights to remain :

(A) faster than that in rural areas

(B) slower than that in rural areas

(C) the same as that in rural areas

(D) cooler than that in rural areas

Answer: B

Q46.       The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of :

(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission

(B) Mudaliar Commission

(C) Sargent Commission

(D) Kothari Commission

Answer: A or C

The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India is a statutory body set up by the Indian Union government in 1956, and is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of higher education. It provides recognition to universities in India, and disburses funds to such recognized universities and colleges. Prof. Ved Prakash is the incumbent Chairman of UGC, India. Its headquarters is in New Delhi, and six regional centres in Pune, Bhopal, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Guwahati and Bangalore. After independence, the University Education Commission was set up in 1948 under the Chairmanship of S. Radhakrishnan and it recommended that the UGC be reconstituted on the general model of the University Grants Commission of the United kingdom. UGC was formally inaugurated by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, the Minister of Education, Natural Resources and Scientific Research on 28 December 1953.

Explanation:

The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India is a statutory body set up by the Indian Union government in accordance to the UGC Act 1956 under Ministry of Human Resource Development, and is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of higher education. It provides recognition to universities in India, and disburses funds to such recognised universities and colleges. Its headquarters is in New Delhi, and six regional centres in Pune, Bhopal, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Guwahati and Bangalore.

The first attempt to formulate a national system of education in India came In 1944, with the Report of the Central Advisory Board of Education on Post War Educational Development in India, also known as the Sargeant Report. It recommended the formation of a University Grants Committee, which was formed in 1945 to oversee the work of the three Central Universities of Aligarh, Banaras and, Delhi. In 1947, the Committee was entrusted with the responsibility of dealing with all the then existing Universities. After independence, the University Education Commission was set up in 1948 under the Chairmanship of S. Radhakrishnan and it recommended that the UGC be reconstituted on the general model of the University Grants Commission of the United kingdom.

Q47. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking ?

(A) Article 19                 (B) Article 29 

(C) Article 30                (D) Article 31

Answer: C

Article 30. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. 1) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Article 29. Protection of interests of minorities. 1) Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same. 2) No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them. Article 19. Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.? 1) All citizens shall have the right? To freedom of speech and expression, to assemble peaceably and without arms, to form associations or unions, to move freely throughout the territory of India; Article 31. Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates, etc.

Explanation:

Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Q48.       Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and select the correct answer by using the code given below :

List - I (Institutions)                List - II (Functions)

(a) Parliament                           (i) Formulation of Budget

(b) C & A.G.                              (ii) Enactment of Budget

(c) Ministry of Finance              (iii) Implementation of Budget

(d) Executing Departments       (iv) Legality of expenditure

(v) Justification of Income

Code :

      (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)

(A) (iii)   (iv)  (ii)    (i)

(B) (ii)    (iv)  (i)    (iii)

(C) (v)   (iii)   (iv)  (ii)

(D) (iv)   (ii)   (iii)  (v)

Answer: B

Q49.       Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by :

(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration

(B) Administrative Staff College of India

(C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration

(D) Centre for Advanced Studies

Answer: C

On April 15, 1958 the then Home Minister announced in the Lok Sabha a proposal to set up a National Academy of Administration, where training would be given to all the recruits of the Civil Services. The Ministry of Home Affairs decided to amalgamate the IAS Training School, Delhi and the IAS Staff College, Shimla to form a National Academy of Administration at Mussoorie. The Academy was set up in 1959 and was called the 'National Academy of Administration'. The Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) was established in 1954 as an Autonomous Society. The major activities of the Institute are: Training, Research, Advisory services, and Information dissemination and exchange. Through six decades of experience in research, training and rendering policy advice, conferences and seminars, case studies and publications, the IIPA has made significant contribution to public administration at the Union, State and Local levels. The Centre for Advanced Studies in India (CASII), is a registered, independent, non-profit institution set up for the promotion of excellence in higher research and for academic cooperation.

Explanation:

The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA) is a research and training institute on public policy and public administration in India. It is located in the remote town of Mussoorie, Uttarakhand. The academy's main purpose is to train civil service officers of the three All India Services namely Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service and the Indian Forest Service; and all Group-A Central Services.

Q50.    Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by:

(A) Election Commission of India     (B) Joint Committee of Parliament

(C) Supreme Court of India               (D) Central Election Tribunal

Answer: C

According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court. Further, according to section 14 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, an election petition can be filed before the Supreme Court.